So accident causes the fatal injury, that is not a felony based on evidence shared so far, correct?
The hit and run is a felony, but that did not cause the accident nor the fatality, and is after the accident, and I suspect the injury initially was fatal based on the pictured cars damage.
I am of course assuming the driver did not hit the boy intentionally, nor was rip roaring provable drunk, and not during an armed robbery getaway, etc.
Wonder how they are putting this accused behind the wheel.
Don't mis understand my skepticism here, if I can ask it, so can a defense lawyer, I'm sure much of the above is settled law, but I haven't a clue what it is.


Reality check, that half the population is smarter then 50% of the people and it's a constantly contested fact.